I don't think so.No tax on the first one. The transaction takes place where the purchaser is located.
Now it's entirely possible that the tax is is written in such a manner as to exempt "exports" from the state, but the transaction takes place where the seller is located. If it were not so, a vendor in California would have to collect Sales tax (and any other goofy taxes) in whatever state the buyer is in, and that's clearly not the case.