No. I don't think that there's ever been a question about the ability of government to make money. How does this affect campaign finance? Are you suggesting that we not allow the government to make money?
If you don't disagree with
12 U.S. Code § 411 - Issuance to reserve banks; nature of obligation; redemption | LII / Legal Information Institute which simply states in one short paragraph:
"Federal reserve notes, to be issued at the discretion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System
for the purpose of making advances to Federal reserve banks through the Federal reserve agents as hereinafter set forth and
for no other purpose, are authorized. The said notes shall be obligations of the United States and
shall be receivable by all national and member banks and Federal reserve banks and for all taxes, customs, and other public dues. They shall be redeemed in
lawful money on demand at the Treasury Department of the United States, in the city of Washington, District of Columbia, or at any Federal Reserve bank."
Now you must agree that you are either a Federal Reserve bank or a Federal Reserve agent and the currency is not lawful money. So we are surprised then when we are all willfully operating outside the scope of the framework and corruption like campaign finance occurs?
Is the Federal Reserve the federal government?
Agreed it is a governments supreme prerogative to issue Money. So the example from 12USC411 I gave you is Money then? What about the stated purpose? I assume the campaign finance corruption is paid in Fed Notes, no?
So if I am RJR and contribute to a campaign how is that not collusion between government, bank and corporation? Who controls what competition with RJR there is? Why is Congress able to interfere with Major League Baseball?
Sorry, main point is how is unlimited funding not the source of corruption on any level? Of course lets not touch on "unlimited" but when a million here and a billion there literally goes unnoticed every single day it is the same difference.